> Documentation/notation/ancient.itely:2651: an indication of how the
> initial rests and note of the original version
> notes
>
> https://codereview.appspot.com/108270043/
>
No - it should be "note". A standard incipit has all the rests
leading to the first note, but just the first note alone.
Beg to differ. See for example
<URL:https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mensural_notation#mediaviewer/File:Josquin_Domine_ne_in_furore.svg>.
It's usually the first bar or half bar, but enough that every voice has
at least one actual note.
https://codereview.appspot.com/108270043/
TBH I've sung from a lot of music with incipits and have never seen more
than one note: finding a sole example on Wikipedia from an author who
does
not appear to have a username isn't categorical!
FWIW I've also sung a lot of music with incipits and I didn't gather that
one single note would be standard; I've even seen full movements as
incipit.
if the sung music starts with a ligature, it's even impossible to have
just one note as incipit. to me "note or notes" is just pleonasm for
"notes".