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Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?

From: Rusi
Subject: Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?
Date: Sat, 18 Apr 2015 05:43:44 -0700 (PDT)
User-agent: G2/1.0

On Saturday, April 18, 2015 at 1:22:40 PM UTC+5:30, Marcin Borkowski wrote:
> On 2015-04-18, at 04:55, Emanuel Berg  wrote:
> > Meanwhile, most university people don't get that
> > programming languages are tools that should be
> > employed to do useful things, not runes to be analyzed
> > like some Noam Chomsky/Indiana Jones would the
> > paleo-Etruscan from half-disintegrated tomb stones!
> I guess whether (a) this "most university people" stuff was some kind of
> irony towards me

Nah! Mea Culprit.

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