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Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?


From: Marcin Borkowski
Subject: Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?
Date: Sat, 18 Apr 2015 09:52:24 +0200

On 2015-04-18, at 04:55, Emanuel Berg <address@hidden> wrote:

> Meanwhile, most university people don't get that
> programming languages are tools that should be
> employed to do useful things, not runes to be analyzed
> like some Noam Chomsky/Indiana Jones would the
> paleo-Etruscan from half-disintegrated tomb stones!

I guess whether (a) this "most university people" stuff was some kind of
irony towards me (and if yes, I guess it's mistaken: I'm just a student
of Emacs, and a curious one, too, so I wanted to understand; in fact,
Drew's answer was one of the very few on-topic ones!  And what I'm
actually doing is my "university stuff" is mathematical analysis/fixed
point theory) and whether (b) this "half-disintegrated tomb stones"
stuff was some kind of irony towards Emacs itself. ;-P

Best,

-- 
Marcin Borkowski
http://octd.wmi.amu.edu.pl/en/Marcin_Borkowski
Faculty of Mathematics and Computer Science
Adam Mickiewicz University



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