|From:||Jorge A. Alfaro-Murillo|
|Subject:||Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?|
|Date:||Fri, 17 Apr 2015 16:49:59 -0400|
|User-agent:||Gnus/5.13 (Gnus v5.13) Emacs/25.0.50 (gnu/linux)|
Marcin Borkowski writes:
Seemingly, it doesn't make much sense: what is the purpose of saying (and (whatever) t) instead of just (whatever) for a predicate? Of course, this "normalizes" any "truthy" value to "t", but is it really needed for anything (except perhaps being elegant)?
Perhaps so that it returns t instead of whatever, if whatever is not nil.
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