[Top][All Lists]

[Date Prev][Date Next][Thread Prev][Thread Next][Date Index][Thread Index]

Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?

From: Jorge A. Alfaro-Murillo
Subject: Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?
Date: Fri, 17 Apr 2015 16:49:59 -0400
User-agent: Gnus/5.13 (Gnus v5.13) Emacs/25.0.50 (gnu/linux)

Marcin Borkowski writes:

Seemingly, it doesn't make much sense: what is the purpose of saying (and (whatever) t) instead of just (whatever) for a predicate? Of course, this "normalizes" any "truthy" value to "t", but is it really needed for anything (except perhaps being elegant)?

Perhaps so that it returns t instead of whatever, if whatever is not nil.


reply via email to

[Prev in Thread] Current Thread [Next in Thread]