Re: Why would I use begin-of-line-invis. over end-of-line-vis or vice versa?

[Carl Sorensen]

On 11/16/10 3:18 PM, "James Lowe" <address@hidden> wrote:

> 
> 
> Hello,
> 
> see the following simple example.
> 
> --
> 
> \version "2.13.37"
> 
> \relative c'' {
>    c1
>    \once \override Score.RehearsalMark #'break-visibility =
> #begin-of-line-invisible
>    \once \override Score.RehearsalMark #'self-alignment-X = #RIGHT
>    \mark "Here is some text"
>    \break
>    c1
> }
> 
> 
> \relative c'' {
>    c1
>    \once \override Score.RehearsalMark #'break-visibility =
> #end-of-line-visible
>    \once \override Score.RehearsalMark #'self-alignment-X = #RIGHT
>    \mark "Here is some text"
>    \break
>    c1
> }
> 
> --
> 
> They both produce identical output.
> 
> However is there a technical case where I would prefer to use the
> 'begin-of-line-invisible' over 'end-of-line-visible'?

They have a different result in the middle of the line.

Each of these variables has three parts -- beginning of line, middle of
line, end of line.

begin-of-line-invisible is f t t.
end-of-line-visible is f f t.

See Notation Reference 5.4.7 Visibility of objects/Using break-visibility.

HTH,

Carl