Re: [Chicken-users] (use foo) versus (declare (uses foo)), csi versus csc

[John Cowan]

Peter Bex scripsit:

> Why is the difference between compiled and interpreted mode there?
> The meaning of these things isn't fundamentally different between the two
> modes, is it?  Can't (declare) statements be parsed by the interpreter as
> well?

They are trivially parsed and ignored with a warning.

-- 
John Cowan   address@hidden   http://ccil.org/~cowan
I must confess that I have very little notion of what [s. 4 of the British
Trade Marks Act, 1938] is intended to convey, and particularly the sentence
of 253 words, as I make them, which constitutes sub-section 1.  I doubt if
the entire statute book could be successfully searched for a sentence of
equal length which is of more fuliginous obscurity. --MacKinnon LJ, 1940